#Mentor Guideline: Solving Any Spotter in 2 Minutes
Goal: Identify the item (organism, instrument, scientist, disease sign, etc.) and write high-yield points quickly and accurately.
#Step 1: Quick Observation & Context (10–20 sec)
Action:
Look at the image/diagram/model/object carefully.
Note distinct features: shape, color, size, parts, background clues.
Check labels, arrows, context clues in the figure.
Tips:
Break down complex diagrams into 3–4 main visual clues.
For instruments: shape + markings.
For organisms: morphology + staining patterns.
For scientists: clothing, tools, era, lab setup.
For clinical signs: location, pattern, associated structures.
#Step 2: Identify the Spotter (0.5–1 mark, 20 sec)
Action:
Match clues to your memory:
Mnemonic aids help (e.g., “Snow → cholera map; Jenner → cowpox; Pasteur → germ flasks”).
Narrow down to era, specialty, category if unsure.
Tips:
Even if unsure, eliminate impossible options first.
Write the full name or exact term as required by the exam.
Include dates or classification if it adds marks.
#Step 3: Recall High-Yield Points (1–1.5 marks, 50–60 sec)
Action:
Quickly list key 3–5 points about the spotter.
Focus on exam-relevant contributions, features, or functions.
Tips:
Use mental categories:
Scientists → contributions, discoveries, title.
Instruments → purpose, parts, function.
Organisms → morphology, pathogenicity, staining, disease caused.
Clinical signs → site, appearance, associated condition.
Stick to short bullet points; avoid writing paragraphs.
Prioritize high-yield, well-known facts.
#Step 4: Write Answer Clearly & Concisely (30–40 sec)
Action:
Write the answer in structured bullets.
For multi-part answers, number or use dashes for clarity.
Keep language simple, precise, and spelling accurate.
Tips:
For contributions: 3 points for 1.5 marks is enough.
Avoid unnecessary details; examiners value accuracy over quantity.
Use abbreviations only if universally accepted.
#Step 5: Quick Self-Check (10–20 sec)
Action:
Re-read your answer: check name, term, spelling, points.
Ensure points match the spotter; avoid mixing with similar topics.
Tips:
Fix minor errors fast; don’t leave the answer ambiguous.
If time is short, prioritize accuracy of identification over extra points.
#Time Management Summary (2-Minute Plan)
Step | Task | Time (sec) |
|---|---|---|
1 | Observe & note visual clues | 10–20 |
2 | Identify the spotter | 20 |
3 | Recall high-yield points | 50–60 |
4 | Write answer clearly | 30–40 |
5 | Quick self-check | 10–20 |
Total | 120 |
#General Tips for Better Performance
Practice visually: Regularly study diagrams, instruments, clinical images.
Use mnemonics & associations: Helps recall faster under time pressure.
Prioritize high-yield points: Focus on what is frequently asked.
Group by category: Scientists, instruments, organisms, clinical signs, etc.
Keep answers neat: Marks are easier to get if your answer is readable.
Simulate exam timing: Train students to stick to 2 minutes per spotter.
Teach spotting patterns: Some clues are repeated in different spotters (e.g., lab tools, classical appearances).
SEMESTER I
Module 1: Human & Medicine
Spotter 1
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
John Snow (1813-1858)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to public health. (1.5)
Known as the father of modern epidemiology.
Established that cholera is transmitted through contaminated water, disproving the miasma theory.
Conducted the Broad Street pump investigation (London, 1854) and controlled the outbreak by removal of the pump handle.
Spotter 2
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
Robert Koch (1843–1910)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to public health. (1.5)
Formulated Koch’s postulates, providing experimental proof that specific microorganisms cause specific diseases.
Identified the causative agent of Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) in 1882.
Known as the father of modern bacteriology.
Discovered the causative agents of Cholera (Vibrio cholerae, 1883) and Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis).
Spotter 3
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
Edward Jenner (1749–1823)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to public health. (1.5)
Developed the World’s First Successful Vaccine (Smallpox)Pioneered the Concept of Immunization (Jenner moved medicine away from "variolation" (infecting people with the actual deadly smallpox virus) to "vaccination" (using a milder, safer relative of the virus).)
Known as the Father of Immunology
Spotter 4
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
Louis Pasteur (1822–1895)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to public health. (1.5)
Proposed the germ theory of disease, suggesting microbes cause infectious diseases and can spread between people.
Developed the first vaccines for rabies and anthrax; coined the term “vaccine”.
Demonstrated principles of microbial fermentation and pasteurization.
Disproved the Theory of Spontaneous Generation.
Spotter 5
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
Hippocrates (460–370 BC)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to medicine/public health. (1.5)
Known as the Father of Medicine.
Introduced clinical observation and ethical practice (Hippocratic Oath).
Recognized for epidemiologic thinking, described in “Air, Water & Places.”
Spotter 6
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
James Lind (1716–1794)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to medicine/public health. (1.5)
Conducted one of the first controlled clinical trials.
Demonstrated that citrus fruits prevent scurvy among sailors.
Laid foundation for evidence-based preventive interventions in public health.
Spotter 7
Q1. Identify the scientist shown in the picture. (0.5)
John M. Last (1926–2006)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this scientist to medicine/public health. (1.5)
Renowned epidemiologist and author of “A Dictionary of Epidemiology.”
Contributed significantly to the definition and concepts of epidemiology and public health.
Emphasized evidence-based preventive medicine and population health approaches.
Spotter 8
Q1. Identify the scientist/medical figure shown in the picture. (0.5)
Dhanvantari
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this figure to medicine/public health. (1.5)
Known as the Father of Indian Medicine and Ayurveda.
Considered the mythological physician of the gods in Indian tradition.
Represents the roots of traditional medicine in ancient India.
Spotter 9
Q1. Name of the scientist. (0.5)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723)
Q2. Mention any THREE contributions of this figure to medicine/public health. (1.5)
Built skillful microscopes capable of magnifying objects over 200 times.
Observed “animalcules” (microorganisms) in a drop of water.
First person to observe and record microbes, laying the foundation for microbiology and understanding of infectious diseases.
Spotter 10
Q1. What does this diagram represent? (0.5)
Tridosha theory of disease
Q2. Name two medical systems which originated in India. (0.5)
Ayurveda and Siddha
Q3. Name the four eminent persons of ancient India who are greatly acknowledged in Ayurveda. (1)
Atreya, Charaka, Sushruta, Vagbata
Spotter 11
Q1. What does this diagram represent? (0.5)
Two principles of Chinese medicine – Yin and Yang
Q2. What does the balance of Yin and Yang indicate? (0.5)
Good health
Q3. Name any two contributions of ancient Chinese physicians. (1)
Practised variolation to prevent smallpox.
Developed treatments using hygiene, dietetics, hydrotherapy, massage, and drugs.
Spotter 12
Q1. What does this diagram represent? (0.5)
Greek Medicine – Humoral theory
Q2. Name the four humors described in Greek Medicine. (0.5)
Blood, Phlegm, Yellow bile, Black bile
Q3. Name any two contributions of Hippocrates to medicine/public health. (1)
Introduced clinical observation and systematic recording of patient symptoms.
Established ethical medical practice (Hippocratic Oath).
Spotter 13
Q1. Name two major public health innovations introduced by the Romans. (1)
• Aqueducts – ensured clean and continuous water supply
• Public baths and sewage systems – improved sanitation and hygiene
Q2. Name any two contributions of Roman physicians to medicine/public health. (1)
• Emphasized hygiene and sanitation for disease prevention
• Developed surgical instruments and techniques, especially for battlefield medicine
Spotter 14
Q1. What does the symbol on the right represent? (1)
Rod of Asclepius – symbol of medicine; a staff entwined by a single serpent, representing the ancient Greek god of medicine and healing
Q2. Name the symbol on the left and how it differs from the Rod of Asclepius. (1)
The Caduceus – a staff with two serpents entwined and wings; unlike the Rod of Asclepius, it is often incorrectly used as a medical symbol and originally represents commerce and negotiation.
See, Logo of WHO
Spotter 15
Q1. Identify the person shown in the diagram/image. (0.5)
Galen (130–205 A.D.)
Q2. He belonged to which system/period of medicine? (0.5)
Roman (Greek–Roman) medicine
Q3. Mention any two contributions of Galen. (1)
Contributed to anatomy and physiology based on animal dissection.
Developed pharmacology (Galenic preparations).
SEMESTER I
Module 2: Concept of Health and Disease
Spotter 1
Q1. What does this diagram represent? (0.5)
Iceberg phenomenon of disease
Q2. What is the significance of the following? (1.5)
a. Floating tip of the iceberg
Represents clinically apparent / diagnosed cases of disease.
b. Submerged portion of the iceberg
Represents subclinical, undiagnosed, latent, and carrier cases of disease.
c. Water line
Represents the level of clinical detection and diagnostic threshold.
Spotter 2
Q1. What does this diagram represent? (0.5)
Epidemiological triad
Q2. What is the significance of the following? (1.5)
a. Agent
The causative factor responsible for the disease (biological, chemical, physical, or nutritional).
b. Host
The human or animal that harbours the disease, influenced by factors like age, sex, immunity, and genetics.
c. Environment
External conditions that facilitate disease transmission, such as climate, sanitation, housing, and socio-economic factors.
Note: The Epidemiological Triad is a foundational public health model showing disease causation as an interaction between three key elements: the Agent (the pathogen/cause), the Host (the susceptible individual), and the Environment (external factors bringing them together). This triangle framework helps epidemiologists understand how diseases spread and develop interventions, explaining that a disease occurs when these three factors align in a way that promotes infection or illness.
The Three Components
The external factor or organism that causes the disease (e.g., bacteria, virus, chemical, physical factor).
Host:
The living organism susceptible to the agent, influenced by factors like age, genetics, immunity, and behavior.
The surrounding conditions (physical, biological, social) that influence the agent's survival and the host's susceptibility, like climate, sanitation, or population density.
How it Works
A disease results from a specific relationship where the agent interacts with a susceptible host within a particular environment.
By understanding this dynamic, public health officials can identify points of intervention (e.g., vaccinating the host, controlling the agent, improving the environment) to prevent outbreaks.
Example: Food Poisoning
Agent: Salmonella bacteria.
Host: A person who eats the contaminated food.
Environment: The restaurant where the food was prepared and the conditions that allowed the bacteria to grow.
Spotter 3
Q1. What does this diagram represent in context of Pulmonary Tuberculosis? (0.5)
Epidemiological triad of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
Q2. What is the significance of the following? (1.5)
a. Agent
Mycobacterium tuberculosis — the biological agent causing Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
b. Host
Humans with risk factors such as malnutrition, low immunity, HIV infection, diabetes, smoking, alcoholism, and extremes of age.
c. Environment
Conditions facilitating transmission of PTB, including overcrowding, poor ventilation, poor housing, poverty, and unhygienic living conditions.
Spotter 4
Q1. Identify the diagram? (0.5)
Theory of Multifactorial Causation
Q2. Who gave the concept of this theory? (0.5)
Max von Pettenkofer
Q3. Write two significances of this diagram. (1)
Illustrates the multifactorial causation of complex diseases.
Forms the basis for comprehensive disease prevention and control.
Note: The theory of multifactorial causation of disease was prominently put forward by Max von Pettenkofer in the late 19th century. His ideas were a counterpoint to the prevailing single-cause "germ theory" of disease advocated by Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch at the time.
Pettenkofer argued that disease was a result of multiple interacting factors, not just a single causative organism. For example, he posited that tuberculosis wasn't solely due to the tubercle bacilli, but also influenced by environmental and social factors like poverty, malnutrition, and overcrowding.
Spotter 5
Q1. Identify the diagram. (0.5)
Web of Causation of Myocardial Infarction
Q2. Who gave the concept of this diagram? (0.5)
MacMahon and Pugh
Q3. Write two significances of this diagram. (1)
It demonstrates the interaction of multiple inter-related risk factors in the causation of myocardial infarction rather than a single cause.
It provides a basis for comprehensive prevention and control strategies by targeting multiple modifiable risk factors simultaneously.
Note: The web of causation is a conceptual model in epidemiology that illustrates the complex, interconnected, and multifactorial nature of diseases and health outcomes. It posits that health issues rarely stem from a single cause but rather from a network of interacting biological, environmental, and social determinants.
This model, first articulated in a 1960 epidemiology textbook by Brian MacMahon and Thomas Pugh, moved the field beyond the "germ theory" single-cause model, especially for chronic diseases where multiple risk factors are involved.
Spotter 6
Q1. What is the name of the given diagram? (0.5)
Natural History of Disease
Q2. Mention the public health importance of this diagram. (1.5)
It helps in understanding the sequence of events in disease progression, from the pre-pathogenic phase to the pathogenic phase.
It assists in identifying the appropriate levels of prevention—primary, secondary, and tertiary—at different stages of disease.
It guides the timely application of preventive and control measures, thereby helping to reduce morbidity, mortality, and overall disease burden.
Note:
Spotter 7
Q1. What is the name of the given diagram? (0.5)
Natural History of Disease
Q2. Enlist the modes of intervention for COVID-19 at each level of prevention. (1.5)
Primary prevention:
Health promotion: Health education, mask use, hand hygiene, physical distancing
Specific protection: COVID-19 vaccination
Secondary prevention:
Early diagnosis: Screening, RT-PCR / Rapid Antigen testing
Prompt treatment: Early isolation and supportive care
Tertiary prevention:
Disability limitation: Management of complications (e.g., hypoxia, organ involvement)
Rehabilitation: Post-COVID care and physiotherapy
Spotter 8
Q1. In the following figure, which point is the usual time of diagnosis? (1)
a. A
b. B
c. X
d. Y
Q2. What is lead time? (1)
Lead time is the period between the onset of a disease (or the earliest detectable stage) and the usual time of diagnosis.
Spotter 9
Q1. Which point in the natural history of disease marks the onset of symptoms? (1)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Q2. Which study design is best to demonstrate natural history of disease? (1)
Cohort study
Spotter 10
For each of the following, identify the appropriate letter from the timeline in the figure representing the Natural History of Disease. (2)
Match the occurrences with the correct stage:
– Onset of symptoms
– Usual time of diagnosis
– Exposure
Options:
a. A, C, D
b. B, C, D
c. C, D, A
d. D, A, B
Spotter 11
1. Identify the symbol shown in the figure. (0.5)
The Ottawa Charter’s Emblem
2. What is the concept adopted by this? (1.5)
The concept of the Ottawa Charter is to enable, mediate, and advocate for health by focusing on:
Build healthy public policy
Create supportive environments for health
Strengthen community action for health
Develop personal skills
Reorient health services
Note:
The Ottawa Charter emblem is the official World Health Organization (WHO) Health Promotion logo and features a red circle with three inner wings. It symbolizes the integrated, multi-strategic approach to health promotion outlined in the 1986 Ottawa Charter.
Emblem Components and Meaning
Each part of the emblem represents a key element of the Ottawa Charter's framework:
The Outer Circle: Originally red, the circle represents the goal of "Building Healthy Public Policies", symbolizing the need for policies to hold together and contain all other health promotion efforts.
The Inner Spot: The small central circle represents the three basic health promotion strategies: to enable, mediate, and advocate for health.
The Three Wings: The wings originating from the inner spot symbolize the five key action areas of health promotion:
One wing (the top one) breaks the outer circle, representing the need for action to strengthen community action and develop personal skills; this breaking of the circle symbolizes that policies must constantly adapt to the ever-changing needs of individuals and communities.
The middle right wing represents action needed to create supportive environments for health.
The bottom wing represents action needed to reorient health services towards preventing diseases and promoting health.
The emblem's design was slightly modified for subsequent international conferences, such as the Fourth International Conference on Health Promotion in Jakarta in 1997, to reflect the local culture while preserving the core meaning. The Jakarta version used a large blue spot and brick-red wings, all reaching outside the circle to represent a more open and lively approach
Spotter 12
Q1. How many Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were there?
8 goals
Q2. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?
17 goals
Note: MDGs (Millennium Development Goals, 2000-2015) focused on poverty reduction in developing nations (8 goals), while SDGs (Sustainable Development Goals, 2015-2030) are universal, encompassing 17 interconnected goals for all countries, addressing economic, social, and environmental aspects like climate change, inequality, and peace, building on MDG successes but with broader scope and inclusivity.
Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
Timeframe: 2000-2015.
Focus: Primarily on developing countries, tackling poverty, hunger, disease, education, gender, and environment.
Goals: 8 specific goals, e.g., eradicate extreme poverty, achieve universal primary education, reduce child mortality.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
Timeframe: 2015-2030.
Focus: Universal, applying to all countries (developed and developing), integrating economic, social, and environmental pillars.
Goals: 17 broad goals (e.g., No Poverty, Zero Hunger, Climate Action, Quality Education, Peace & Justice) with 169 targets.
Key Differences & Improvements
Universality: SDGs are for everyone, unlike MDGs which targeted poorer nations.
Scope: SDGs are much broader, adding climate, inequality, sustainable cities, energy, etc., recognizing interconnectedness.
Inclusivity: SDGs involve all stakeholders (governments, private sector, civil society) and address systemic issues.
Foundation: SDGs build on MDG successes but address their limitations, creating a more comprehensive blueprint for sustainable development.
Spotter 13
Q1. Enlist any four Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). (1)
SDG 1: No Poverty
SDG 2: Zero Hunger
SDG 3: Good Health and Well-Being
SDG 4: Quality Education
Q2. Mention the SDG which is directly related to health. (1)
SDG 3 – Good Health and Well-Being
SEMESTER I
Module 3 & 4: Nutrition-I & Nutrition-II
Spotter 1
Rice
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item. (1)
(per 100 g, raw polished rice):
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates: ~78 g
Protein: ~7 g
Fat: ~0.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~345 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~10 mg
Iron: ~1 mg
Phosphorus: ~160 mg
Magnesium: ~35 mg
Potassium: ~115 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.07 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.02 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~1.6 mg
Q2. Enlist four diseases associated with its deficiency. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Underweight
Growth retardation (in children)
#other possible question number 2 will be...........
Q. What is the clinical significance of polished rice? (1)
Polished rice has reduced nutritional value due to loss of the bran and germ, leading to deficiency of B-complex vitamins (especially thiamine) and minerals. It also has a higher glycemic index compared to unpolished (brown) rice, increasing the risk of beriberi, diabetes mellitus, obesity, and other chronic diseases.
Spotter 2
Pulse
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item. (1)
(per 100 g, dry pulses):
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates: ~60 g
Protein: ~22 g
Fat: ~1.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~340 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~75 mg
Iron: ~5 mg
Phosphorus: ~300 mg
Magnesium: ~130 mg
Potassium: ~700 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.5 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.2 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~2 mg
Folic acid: ~200 µg
Q2. Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Iron deficiency anemia
Night blindness
Goiter
Zinc deficiency
Rickets / Osteomalacia
Spotter 3
Q 1. List four major differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. (2)
Feature | Marasmus | Kwashiorkor |
|---|---|---|
Primary deficiency | Severe deficiency of total calories (carbohydrates, fats, and proteins) | Predominant protein deficiency with relatively adequate calories |
Body appearance | Severe wasting with marked loss of muscle and fat | Edema present, often masking weight loss |
Edema | Absent | Present (face, limbs, abdomen) |
Appetite | Good / voracious | Poor or absent |
Spotter 4
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition of 1 hen egg (approx. 50 g). (1)
Macronutrients
Protein: ~6–7 g
Fat: ~5–6 g
Carbohydrates: ~0.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~78 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~25 mg
Iron: ~1 mg
Phosphorus: ~100 mg
Vitamin A: ~70 µg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.02 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.23 mg
Vitamin B₁₂: ~0.55 µg
Q2. Why is egg called a reference protein? (1)
Answer:
A hen egg is called a reference protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids in proportions that closely match human requirements and has high digestibility, making it the standard for comparing protein quality in other foods.
Spotter 5
Soyabean
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Soyabean. (1)
Macronutrients
Protein: ~36–40 g
Carbohydrates: ~30 g
Fat: ~20 g
Energy (Calories): ~430 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~277 mg
Iron: ~15 mg
Phosphorus: ~704 mg
Magnesium: ~280 mg
Potassium: ~1800 mg
Sodium: ~2 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.87 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.87 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~1.6 mg
Folate: ~375 µg
Q2. List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment. (1)
Answer:
Anthropometry – measurement of body size, weight, and proportions
Biochemical investigations – lab tests for nutrient levels in blood, urine, or tissues
Clinical examination – physical signs of nutrient deficiencies or excesses
Assessment of dietary intake – food surveys, 24-hour recall, or food frequency questionnaires
Ecological studies – population-level assessment using food supply or consumption data
Functional assessment – tests of physical or cognitive performance related to nutrition
Vital and health statistics – use of morbidity, mortality, and growth trends to assess nutritional status
Spotter 6
Q1. Define balanced diet. (1)
Answer:
A balanced diet is a diet that contains different types of foods providing all the essential nutrients—carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water—in the right proportions to meet the daily requirements of the body.
Q2. Define micro and macro nutrients. (1)
Answer:
Micronutrients: Vitamins and minerals required in small amounts, ranging from a fraction of a milligram to several grams, essential for growth, development, and metabolism.
Macronutrients: Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates, also called proximate principles, which form the main bulk of food and provide energy and structural components for the body.
Spotter 7
Q1. Mention the composition of adult IFA (Iron-Folic Acid) tablets. (1)
Answer:
Iron: 100 mg
Folic acid: 500 µg
Q2. Which trimester is recommended for iron supplementation in a pregnant woman? (1)
Answer:
2nd trimester
Spotter 8
Q1. Define protein-energy malnutrition (PEM). (1)
Answer:
Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) is a spectrum of conditions caused by insufficient intake or absorption of protein and/or calories, leading to deficits that impair growth, development, and bodily functions. It manifests as:
Wasting – Marasmus
Swelling (edema) – Kwashiorkor
Or a combination – Marasmic Kwashiorkor
Q2. List the major types of protein-energy malnutrition. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Marasmic Kwashiorkor
Spotter 9
Q1. Identify the spotter. (0.5)
Answer:
Kwashiorkor
Q2. Define the given condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition caused by a drastic lack of protein, even when calorie intake may be adequate. It leads to:
Edema (swelling of the belly, limbs, and face)
Muscle wasting
Fatigue and irritability
Skin and hair changes (depigmentation, thin brittle hair)
Weakened immune system
It primarily affects young children in famine-stricken or low-protein diet regions.
Spotter 10
Q1. Write the name of the clinical condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Goitre
Q2. Enlist three preventive measures for this condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Dietary & Nutrient Focus:
Use iodized salt
Consume iodine-rich foods like seafood, dairy products, and seaweed
Ensure adequate selenium and zinc intake
Avoid goitrogenic foods in excess:
Foods like cabbage, cauliflower, and cassava can interfere with iodine uptake
Lifestyle and Public Health Measures:
Maintain healthy diet, regular exercise, and stress management
Participate in iodine supplementation programs where available
Spotter 11
1. Write the name of the given condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Goiter
Q2. Mention four major sources of the required micronutrient (iodine) for the above case. (1.5)
Answer:
Seaweed
Seafood
Dairy products and eggs
Iodized salt
Spotter 12
Q1. Write the name of the clinical condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Xerophthalmia
Q2. Write WHO Classification of Xerophthalmia. (1.5)
Answer:
Night blindness (XN)
Conjunctival xerosis (X1A)
Bitot’s spot (X1B)
Corneal xerosis (X2)
Corneal ulceration (<1/3 of cornea) (X3A)
Corneal ulceration (>1/3 of cornea) (X3B)
Corneal scarring (XS)
Xerophthalmia fundus (XF)
Spotter 13
Q1. Identify the instrument. (0.5)
Answer:
Weighing scale
Q2. What is its use? (0.5)
Answer:
To measure body weight
Q3. Calculate your own BMI. (1)
Answer:
Formula: BMI = Weight (kg) ÷ Height (m)²
Example: If weight = 60 kg and height = 1.65 m:
BMI=601.652=602.7225≈22.0 kg/m²BMI = \frac{60}{1.65^2} = \frac{60}{2.7225} \approx 22.0 \, \text{kg/m²}BMI=1.65260=2.722560≈22.0kg/m²
Interpretation (WHO classification):
<18.5 → Underweight
18.5–24.9 → Normal
25–29.9 → Overweight
≥30 → Obese
Spotter 14
Q1. Which toxin is associated with Lathyrism? (0.5)
Answer:
β-ODAP (BOAA) – beta-N-oxalyl-L-alpha, beta-diaminopropionic acid
Q2. List three interventions for the above condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Reduce consumption of Lathyrus sativus (grass pea)
High-protein diet to support recovery
Physiotherapy to manage and improve muscle function
Spotter 15
Q1. Write the name of the given condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Marasmus
Q2. List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment. (1.5)
Answer:
Anthropometry – measurement of body size, weight, and proportions
Biochemical investigations – lab tests for nutrient levels in blood, urine, or tissues
Clinical examination – physical signs of nutrient deficiencies or excesses
Assessment of dietary intake – 24-hour recall, food frequency questionnaires, or food surveys
Ecological studies – population-level assessment using food supply or consumption data
Functional assessment – tests of physical or cognitive performance related to nutrition
Vital and health statistics – using morbidity, mortality, and growth trends to assess nutritional status
Spotter 16
Q1. Mention the name of the method used in this picture and its interpretation. (1)
Answer:
Method: Mid-Upper Arm Circumference (MUAC)
Interpretation:
Green (≥12.5 cm): Well-nourished
Yellow (11.5–12.5 cm): Moderate malnutrition (needs support)
Red (<11.5 cm): Severe acute malnutrition (requires urgent treatment)
Q2. Enlist other four anthropometric measurements of nutritional status for a child. (1)
Answer:
Height / Length
Weight
Body Mass Index (BMI)
Head and Chest Circumference
Spotter 17
Q1. Identify the measuring tape in the given picture. (0.5)
Answer:
Sakir tape
Q2. Write the value for green, yellow, and red color in the tape. (1.5)
Answer:
Green: ≥ 12.5 cm → Normal / Well-nourished
Yellow: 11.5–12.5 cm → Moderate acute malnutrition (needs support)
Red: < 11.5 cm → Severe acute malnutrition (requires urgent treatment)
Spotter 18
Q1. Enlist four major sources of iron. (1)
Answer:
Red meat, poultry, and seafood (heme iron – easily absorbed)
Legumes (beans, lentils)
Dark leafy greens (spinach, kale)
Nuts, seeds, dried fruits, and fortified cereals
Q2. Mention four common causes of iron deficiency anemia in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Inadequate intake of iron-rich foods
Hookworm infestation
Pregnancy (increased iron requirement)
Chronic blood loss
Spotter 19
Q1. What are the common causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Nepal? (1)
Answer:
Inadequate intake of iron-rich foods
Hookworm infestation
Pregnancy (increased iron requirement)
Chronic blood loss
Q2. Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM)
Night blindness (Vitamin A deficiency)
Iron deficiency anemia
Iodine deficiency (Goiter)
Spotter 20
Q1. Enlist four sources of vitamin A. (1)
Answer:
Plant sources: Green leafy vegetables, carrots
Animal sources: Meat, fish
Q2. What is Preformed Vitamin A and Provitamin A? (1)
Answer:
Preformed Vitamin A: Retinol and retinoic acid found in animal foods such as dairy products, fish, and meat (especially liver).
Provitamin A: Beta-carotene, a substance from plant sources (like carrots and green vegetables) that can be converted by the body into vitamin A.
Spotter 21
Q1. Enlist any two bony deformities which characterize this disease (Rickets). (0.5)
Answer:
Bowing of legs
Rachitic rosary
Q2. Mention two nutritional forms of the vitamin, the deficiency of which causes the disease. (0.5)
Answer:
Vitamin D₂ (ergocalciferol)
Vitamin D₃ (cholecalciferol)
Q3. Enumerate two preventive measures of it. (1)
Answer:
Sunlight exposure (to stimulate vitamin D synthesis)
Vitamin D supplements and dietary calcium
Spotter 22
Q1. Identify the picture and comment on its cause. (1)
Answer:
Condition: Rashes due to zinc deficiency
Cause: Insufficient intake or absorption of zinc, leading to skin lesions, delayed wound healing, growth retardation, and impaired immune function.
Q2. Mention the daily requirement of this element in adults, children, and infants. (1)
Answer:
Adult men: 12 mg/day
Adult women: 10 mg/day
Children: 10 mg/day
Infants: 5 mg/day
Spotter 23
Q1. Write two milk-borne bacterial diseases. (1)
Answer:
Infectious diarrhoea – caused by E. coli
Food poisoning – caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Q2. Write the full form of SNF. (0.5)
Answer:
SNF: Solid-Not-Fat
Q3. Enlist two common methods of pasteurization of milk. (0.5)
Answer:
Low Temperature Long Time (LTLT) method: 63°C for 30 minutes
High Temperature Short Time (HTST) method: 72°C for 15 seconds
(Optional/Additional) Ultra High Temperature (UHT) method: 135–150°C for 1–4 seconds
Spotter 24
You said:
Enlist any four Sustainable development goals (SDGs). (1) -no poverty -zero hunger - good health and well being -quality education Mention SDG which is directly related to health? (1) SDG 3 : it is directly related to health
ChatGPT said:
Enlist any four Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): (1)
No Poverty
Zero Hunger
Good Health and Well-Being
Quality Education
SDG directly related to health: (1)
SDG 3 – Good Health and Well-Being
You said:
make question answer format for my spotter and put goal number too
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Enlist any four Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). (1)
Answer:
SDG 1: No Poverty
SDG 2: Zero Hunger
SDG 3: Good Health and Well-Being
SDG 4: Quality Education
Q2. Mention the SDG which is directly related to health. (1)
Answer:
SDG 3 – Good Health and Well-Being
You said:
Mention the nutritional composition per 100 gm of given food item. (1): Rice Enlist 4 diseases associated with its deficiency. (1)
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Rice. (1)
Answer (per 100 g):
Carbohydrates: ~78 g
Protein: ~7 g
Fat: ~0.5 g
Energy: ~345 kcal
Q2. Enlist four diseases associated with its deficiency. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Underweight
Growth retardation (in children)
You said:
add calori too
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Rice. (1)
Answer (per 100 g):
Carbohydrates: ~78 g
Protein: ~7 g
Fat: ~0.5 g
Calories (Energy): ~345 kcal
Q2. Enlist four diseases associated with its deficiency. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Underweight
Growth retardation (in children)
You said:
add all macro and micro elements
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Rice. (1)
Answer (per 100 g, raw polished rice):
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates: ~78 g
Protein: ~7 g
Fat: ~0.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~345 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~10 mg
Iron: ~1 mg
Phosphorus: ~160 mg
Magnesium: ~35 mg
Potassium: ~115 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.07 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.02 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~1.6 mg
Q2. Enlist four diseases associated with its deficiency. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Underweight
Growth retardation (in children)
You said:
Mention the nutritional composition per 100gm of given food item. (1) Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1) Iron deficiency anemia, night blindness, goiter, zinc deficiency. rickets/osteomalacia
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item. (1)
Answer (per 100 g, rice):
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates: ~78 g
Protein: ~7 g
Fat: ~0.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~345 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~10 mg
Iron: ~1 mg
Phosphorus: ~160 mg
Magnesium: ~35 mg
Potassium: ~115 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.07 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.02 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~1.6 mg
Q2. Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Iron deficiency anemia
Night blindness (Vitamin A deficiency)
Goiter (Iodine deficiency)
Zinc deficiency
Rickets / Osteomalacia (Vitamin D deficiency)
You said:
Pulse
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Pulse. (1)
Answer (per 100 g, dry pulses):
Macronutrients
Carbohydrates: ~60 g
Protein: ~22 g
Fat: ~1.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~340 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~75 mg
Iron: ~5 mg
Phosphorus: ~300 mg
Magnesium: ~130 mg
Potassium: ~700 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.5 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.2 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~2 mg
Folic acid: ~200 µg
Q2. Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Iron deficiency anemia
Night blindness
Goiter
Zinc deficiency
Rickets / Osteomalacia
You said:
List four major differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. (1) Marasmus: Severe lack of total calories (energy), affecting carbohydrates, fats, and protein; Extreme muscle wasting; no edema; good or voracious appetite Kwashiorkor: Predominantly a severe protein deficiency; swelling (edema); especially in the belly and limbs, often masking severe weight loss; poor or absent appetite
ChatGPT said:
Q. List four major differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. (1)
Feature | Marasmus | Kwashiorkor |
|---|---|---|
Primary deficiency | Severe deficiency of total calories (carbohydrates, fats, and proteins) | Predominant protein deficiency with relatively adequate calories |
Body appearance | Severe wasting with marked loss of muscle and fat | Edema present, often masking weight loss |
Edema | Absent | Present (face, limbs, abdomen) |
Appetite | Good / voracious | Poor or absent |
You said:
What is the clinical significance of polished rice? (1) reduced nutritional value and higher glycemic index (GI) compared to unpolished (brown) rice, which can lead to various health concerns, including an increased risk of nutrient deficiencies and chronic diseases
ChatGPT said:
Q. What is the clinical significance of polished rice? (1)
Answer:
Polished rice has reduced nutritional value due to loss of the bran and germ, leading to deficiency of B-complex vitamins (especially thiamine) and minerals. It also has a higher glycemic index compared to unpolished (brown) rice, increasing the risk of beriberi, diabetes mellitus, obesity, and other chronic diseases.
You said:
EGG Mention the nutritional composition per 100gm of given food item. (1) Why egg is called a reference protein? (1) because they contain all nine essential amino acids (EAAs) in proportions that closely match human needs, with a digestibility and biological value. This "perfect" balance of amino acids, the building blocks of protein, allows the body to use egg protein with high efficiency for muscle building and other functions, serving as the standard against which other protein sources are measured.
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Egg. (1)
Answer (per 100 g, whole egg):
Macronutrients
Protein: ~13 g
Fat: ~11 g
Carbohydrates: ~1 g
Energy (Calories): ~155 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~50 mg
Iron: ~2 mg
Phosphorus: ~200 mg
Vitamin A: ~140 µg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.04 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.45 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~0.1 mg
Vitamin B₁₂: ~1.1 µg
Q2. Why is egg called a reference protein? (1)
Answer:
Egg is called a reference protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids in proportions that closely match human requirements and has high digestibility and biological value, making it the standard against which the quality of other dietary proteins is measured.
You said:
1 hen ege
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition of 1 hen egg (approx. 50 g). (1)
Macronutrients
Protein: ~6–7 g
Fat: ~5–6 g
Carbohydrates: ~0.5 g
Energy (Calories): ~78 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~25 mg
Iron: ~1 mg
Phosphorus: ~100 mg
Vitamin A: ~70 µg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.02 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.23 mg
Vitamin B₁₂: ~0.55 µg
Q2. Why is egg called a reference protein? (1)
Answer:
A hen egg is called a reference protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids in proportions that closely match human requirements and has high digestibility, making it the standard for comparing protein quality in other foods.
You said:
hen ege size, 14, 15, 16
ChatGPT said:
Ah, you’re referring to hen egg sizes by weight in grams. Here’s a standard classification commonly used:
Hen Egg Sizes:
Small: 40–45 g
Medium: 46–50 g
Large: 51–55 g
Extra Large: 56–60 g
Jumbo: >60 g
So if you mention 14, 15, 16, it seems like you’re asking about weight in some unit, but usually hen eggs are measured in grams per egg. For reference, a large egg is roughly 50–55 g, which is most commonly used in nutrition tables.
If you want, I can make a nutritional composition table for 14 g, 15 g, and 16 g eggs specifically. Do you want me to do that?
You said:
chicken egg size available in nepali market
ChatGPT said:
In the Nepali market, chicken eggs are generally available in different size categories based on weight, which also affects pricing:
Common chicken egg sizes available in Nepal
Medium eggs – standard size sold in markets.
Large eggs – larger than medium and sold at a higher price.
XL/Extra‑Large eggs – premium larger eggs sometimes sold separately.
These size categories help buyers and sellers classify and price eggs in crates or per piece in Nepal.
You said:
give me details
ChatGPT said:
Here are the common chicken egg sizes available in the Nepali market with details that are actually used for pricing and sale:
#Chicken Egg Sizes in Nepal
✔️ Medium eggs
Most commonly available size in local markets.
Standard weight ~45–50 g per egg (typical range for medium categories).
Sold at a lower price compared to large or XL eggs.
✔️ Large eggs
Bigger and heavier than medium eggs, usually ~50–55 g per egg.
Priced higher than medium eggs in the market.
✔️ Extra Large (XL) eggs
Larger still, often from high‑yield breeds or better fed hens.
Highest price category among regular chicken eggs.
✔️ Local/backyard eggs (sometimes labeled as free‑range or “desi”)
These are the eggs from backyard indigenous chickens.
They tend to be smaller (often ~40–45 g) and sold at variable prices; sometimes preferred for taste or texture.
#Notes about egg sizing and market
In Nepal, eggs are priced per crate (30 eggs) and the cost differs by size — medium < large < XL based on weight and consumer demand.
Pastured or omega‑3 enriched eggs (specialty) are also available but are more expensive and not mass produced.
If you want, I can also provide the approximate weight ranges for each size in grams!
You said:
Soyabean Mention the nutritional composition per 100 gm of given food item. (1) List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment. (1) Anthropometry, biochemical investigations, clinical examination, assessment of dietary intake, ecological studies, functional assessment & vital and health statics
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the nutritional composition per 100 g of the given food item: Soyabean. (1)
Macronutrients
Protein: ~36–40 g
Carbohydrates: ~30 g
Fat: ~20 g
Energy (Calories): ~430 kcal
Micronutrients
Calcium: ~277 mg
Iron: ~15 mg
Phosphorus: ~704 mg
Magnesium: ~280 mg
Potassium: ~1800 mg
Sodium: ~2 mg
Thiamine (Vitamin B₁): ~0.87 mg
Riboflavin (Vitamin B₂): ~0.87 mg
Niacin (Vitamin B₃): ~1.6 mg
Folate: ~375 µg
Q2. List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment. (1)
Answer:
Anthropometry – measurement of body size, weight, and proportions
Biochemical investigations – lab tests for nutrient levels in blood, urine, or tissues
Clinical examination – physical signs of nutrient deficiencies or excesses
Assessment of dietary intake – food surveys, 24-hour recall, or food frequency questionnaires
Ecological studies – population-level assessment using food supply or consumption data
Functional assessment – tests of physical or cognitive performance related to nutrition
Vital and health statistics – use of morbidity, mortality, and growth trends to assess nutritional status
You said:
Why egg is called a reference protein? (1) because they contain all nine essential amino acids (EAAs) in proportions that closely match human needs, with a digestibility and biological value. This "perfect" balance of amino acids, the building blocks of protein, allows the body to use egg protein with high efficiency for muscle building and other functions, serving as the standard against which other protein sources are measured. What is the nutritive value of egg? (1) A single large egg offers around 78 calories, 6g protein, 5g fat, vitamins, minerals, antioxidants.
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Why is egg called a reference protein? (1)
Answer:
Egg is called a reference protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids (EAAs) in proportions that closely match human requirements. It has high digestibility and biological value, making it a “perfect” protein. This allows the body to efficiently use egg protein for muscle building and other functions, serving as the standard against which other protein sources are measured.
Q2. What is the nutritive value of a hen egg? (1)
Answer (for a single large egg, ~50 g):
Calories: ~78 kcal
Protein: ~6 g
Fat: ~5 g
Carbohydrates: ~0.5 g
Vitamins: A, B-complex (B₁, B₂, B₁₂), D, E
Minerals: Calcium, Iron, Phosphorus, Zinc
Other: Antioxidants such as lutein and zeaxanthin
You said:
Define balanced diet. (1) A diet which contains different type of food possessing the nutrients - carbohydrate , protein ,fats , vitamin , minerals and water - in a proportion to meet the daily requirement of the body. Define Micro and Macro nutrients. (1) Micro nutrient - These are vitamins , minerals . They are called micronutrient because they are required in small amounts which may vary from a fraction of a milligram to several grams . Macro nutrient - These are proteins, fats and carbohydrate which are often called “ proximate principle “ because they form the main bulk of food.
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Define balanced diet. (1)
Answer:
A balanced diet is a diet that contains different types of foods providing all the essential nutrients—carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water—in the right proportions to meet the daily requirements of the body.
Q2. Define micro and macro nutrients. (1)
Answer:
Micronutrients: Vitamins and minerals required in small amounts, ranging from a fraction of a milligram to several grams, essential for growth, development, and metabolism.
Macronutrients: Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates, also called proximate principles, which form the main bulk of food and provide energy and structural components for the body.
You said:
Mention the composition of adult IFA tablets. Iron (100mg) Folic acid (500mcg) Which trimester is recommended for Iron supplementation in a pregnant women? (1) 2nd trimester
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the composition of adult IFA (Iron-Folic Acid) tablets. (1)
Answer:
Iron: 100 mg
Folic acid: 500 µg
Q2. Which trimester is recommended for iron supplementation in a pregnant woman? (1)
Answer:
2nd trimester
You said:
Define protein energy malnutrition. (1) Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) is a spectrum of conditions caused by insufficient intake or absorption of protein and/or calories, leading to deficits that impair growth, development, and bodily functions, manifesting as wasting (marasmus) or swelling (kwashiorkor), or a mix of both (marasmic kwashiorkor). List major types of protein-energy malnutrition. (1) Marasmus, kwashiorkor and marasmic kwashiorkor
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Define protein-energy malnutrition (PEM). (1)
Answer:
Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) is a spectrum of conditions caused by insufficient intake or absorption of protein and/or calories, leading to deficits that impair growth, development, and bodily functions. It manifests as:
Wasting – Marasmus
Swelling (edema) – Kwashiorkor
Or a combination – Marasmic Kwashiorkor
Q2. List the major types of protein-energy malnutrition. (1)
Answer:
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Marasmic Kwashiorkor
You said:
Identify the spotter. (0.5) Kwashiorkor Define the given condition. (1.5) Kwashiorkor is a severe form of malnutrition caused by a drastic lack of protein, even if calorie intake is adequate, leading to symptoms like edema, muscle loss, fatigue, irritability, skin/hair changes, and a weakened immune system, primarily affecting young children in famine-stricken regions. add with re[resentative photo
ChatGPT said:
Here’s the question-answer format for your spotter with a representative image description:
Q1. Identify the spotter. (0.5)
Answer:
Kwashiorkor
Q2. Define the given condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition caused by a drastic lack of protein, even when calorie intake may be adequate. It leads to:
Edema (swelling of the belly, limbs, and face)
Muscle wasting
Fatigue and irritability
Skin and hair changes (depigmentation, thin brittle hair)
Weakened immune system
It primarily affects young children in famine-stricken or low-protein diet regions.
Representative photo:
(Image description: A young child with a swollen belly, thin limbs, edema in legs, and patchy hair loss typical of kwashiorkor.)
If you want, I can generate an actual representative image of Kwashiorkor suitable for your spotter slide or worksheet. Do you want me to do that?
You said:
ok
ChatGPT said:
We’re so sorry, but the image we created may violate our guardrails around nudity, sexuality, or erotic content. If you think we got it wrong, please retry or edit your prompt.
You said:
retry
ChatGPT said:
We’re so sorry, but the prompt may violate our guardrails around nudity, sexuality, or erotic content. If you think we got it wrong, please retry or edit your prompt.
You said:
Write the name of the clinical condition. (0.5) Goitre Enlist 3 preventive measure for this condition. (1.5) Dietary & Nutrient Focus: Iodized salt- sea food, dairy products, sea weeds; selenium; zinc Avoid goitrogenic food in excess Lifestyle Habits: Exercise, Stress Management, Healthy Diet Iodine supplement program
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Write the name of the clinical condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Goitre
Q2. Enlist three preventive measures for this condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Dietary & Nutrient Focus:
Use iodized salt
Consume iodine-rich foods like seafood, dairy products, and seaweed
Ensure adequate selenium and zinc intake
Avoid goitrogenic foods in excess:
Foods like cabbage, cauliflower, and cassava can interfere with iodine uptake
Lifestyle and Public Health Measures:
Maintain healthy diet, regular exercise, and stress management
Participate in iodine supplementation programs where available
You said:
Write the name of given condition. (0.5) Goiter Mention four major sources of required micronutrient for above case. (1.5) Seaweed Sea foods Dairy products and eggs Iodized salts
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Write the name of the given condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Goiter
Q2. Mention four major sources of the required micronutrient (iodine) for the above case. (1.5)
Answer:
Seaweed
Seafood
Dairy products and eggs
Iodized salt
You said:
Write name of clinical condition.(0.5) Xerophthalmia Write WHO Classification of Xerophthalmia. (1.5) 1.night blindness XN 2.conjunctival xerosis X1A 3. Bitot’s spot X1B 4.corneal xerosis X2 5.corneal ulceration (covering less than 1/3rd of cornea) X3A 6.corneal ulceration (covering more than 1/3rd of cornea) X3B 7.corneal scarring XS 8.xerophthalmia fundus XF
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Write the name of the clinical condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Xerophthalmia
Q2. Write WHO Classification of Xerophthalmia. (1.5)
Answer:
Night blindness (XN)
Conjunctival xerosis (X1A)
Bitot’s spot (X1B)
Corneal xerosis (X2)
Corneal ulceration (<1/3 of cornea) (X3A)
Corneal ulceration (>1/3 of cornea) (X3B)
Corneal scarring (XS)
Xerophthalmia fundus (XF)
You said:
Identify the instrument. (0.5) Weighing scale What is its use? (0.5) Calculate weight Calculate your own BMI. (1) BMI= Weight in Kg/ Height in M2
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Identify the instrument. (0.5)
Answer:
Weighing scale
Q2. What is its use? (0.5)
Answer:
To measure body weight
Q3. Calculate your own BMI. (1)
Answer:
Formula: BMI = Weight (kg) ÷ Height (m)²
Example: If weight = 60 kg and height = 1.65 m:
BMI=1.65260=2.722560≈22.0kg/m²
Interpretation (WHO classification):
<18.5 → Underweight
18.5–24.9 → Normal
25–29.9 → Overweight
≥30 → Obese
You said:
Which toxin is associated with Lathyrism?(0.5) β-ODAP or BOAA (beta-N-oxalyl-L-alpha, beta -diaminopropionic acid) List three interventions for above condition.(1.5) reduce consumption of lathyrus sativus high protein diet Physiotherapy
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Which toxin is associated with Lathyrism? (0.5)
Answer:
β-ODAP (BOAA) – beta-N-oxalyl-L-alpha, beta-diaminopropionic acid
Q2. List three interventions for the above condition. (1.5)
Answer:
Reduce consumption of Lathyrus sativus (grass pea)
High-protein diet to support recovery
Physiotherapy to manage and improve muscle function
You said:
Write the name of given condition.(0.5) Marasmus List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment.(1.5) Anthropometry Biochemical investigations Clinical examination Assessment of dietary intake Ecological studies Functional assessment & Vital and health statics
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Write the name of the given condition. (0.5)
Answer:
Marasmus
Q2. List all seven methods of nutritional status assessment. (1.5)
Answer:
Anthropometry – measurement of body size, weight, and proportions
Biochemical investigations – lab tests for nutrient levels in blood, urine, or tissues
Clinical examination – physical signs of nutrient deficiencies or excesses
Assessment of dietary intake – 24-hour recall, food frequency questionnaires, or food surveys
Ecological studies – population-level assessment using food supply or consumption data
Functional assessment – tests of physical or cognitive performance related to nutrition
Vital and health statistics – using morbidity, mortality, and growth trends to assess nutritional status
You said:
Mention the name of method used in this picture and its interpretation. (1) Mid upper arm circumference Green (≥12.5 cm) means well-nourished, Yellow (11.5–12.5 cm) indicates moderate malnutrition needing support, and Red (<11.5 cm) signals severe acute malnutrition requiring urgent treatment Enlist other four anthropometric measurements of nutritional status for a child. (1) Height, Weight, BMI, MUAC, Head & chest circumference
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Mention the name of the method used in this picture and its interpretation. (1)
Answer:
Method: Mid-Upper Arm Circumference (MUAC)
Interpretation:
Green (≥12.5 cm): Well-nourished
Yellow (11.5–12.5 cm): Moderate malnutrition (needs support)
Red (<11.5 cm): Severe acute malnutrition (requires urgent treatment)
Q2. Enlist other four anthropometric measurements of nutritional status for a child. (1)
Answer:
Height / Length
Weight
Body Mass Index (BMI)
Head and Chest Circumference
You said:
Identify the measuring tape in the given picture. (0.5) Sakir tape Write the value for green, yellow and red color in the tape. (1.5) Green- >=12.5cm(normal) Yellow - 11.5-12.5 cm(moderate acute malnutrition) Red -<11.5cm( severe acute malnutrition)
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Identify the measuring tape in the given picture. (0.5)
Answer:
Sakir tape
Q2. Write the value for green, yellow, and red color in the tape. (1.5)
Answer:
Green: ≥ 12.5 cm → Normal / Well-nourished
Yellow: 11.5–12.5 cm → Moderate acute malnutrition (needs support)
Red: < 11.5 cm → Severe acute malnutrition (requires urgent treatment)
You said:
Enlist four major sources of iron. (1) animal products like red meat, poultry, and seafood (heme iron, easily absorbed) and plant-based foods such as legumes (beans, lentils), dark leafy greens (spinach, kale), nuts, seeds, dried fruits, and fortified cereals Mention four common causes of iron deficiency anemia in Nepal. (1) Inadequate intake of Iron rich food, Hookworm infestation, Pregnancy, Chronic blood loss
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Enlist four major sources of iron. (1)
Answer:
Red meat, poultry, and seafood (heme iron – easily absorbed)
Legumes (beans, lentils)
Dark leafy greens (spinach, kale)
Nuts, seeds, dried fruits, and fortified cereals
Q2. Mention four common causes of iron deficiency anemia in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Inadequate intake of iron-rich foods
Hookworm infestation
Pregnancy (increased iron requirement)
Chronic blood loss
You said:
What are the common causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Nepal? (1) Inadequate intake of Iron rich food, Hookworm infestation, Pregnancy, Chronic blood loss Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1) Protein energy malnutrition Night blindness Iron deficiency anemia Iodine deficiency (goiter)
ChatGPT said:
Q1. What are the common causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia in Nepal? (1)
Answer:
Inadequate intake of iron-rich foods
Hookworm infestation
Pregnancy (increased iron requirement)
Chronic blood loss
Q2. Write down the prevalent nutritional deficiency disorders in Nepal. (1)
Answer:
Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM)
Night blindness (Vitamin A deficiency)
Iron deficiency anemia
Iodine deficiency (Goiter)
You said:
Enlist four sources of vitamin A. (1) Plant sources - green leafy vegetables , carrots & animal sources - meat , fish. What is Preformed Vitamin A and Provitamin A? (1) Preformed vitamin A are retinol and retinoic acid,found in foods from animal sources, including dairy products, fish, and meat (especially liver). A provitamin A is beta carotene, it is a substance that may be converted within the body to a vitamin. It is found in plant sources such as carrots and green vegetables.
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Enlist four sources of vitamin A. (1)
Answer:
Plant sources: Green leafy vegetables, carrots
Animal sources: Meat, fish
Q2. What is Preformed Vitamin A and Provitamin A? (1)
Answer:
Preformed Vitamin A: Retinol and retinoic acid found in animal foods such as dairy products, fish, and meat (especially liver).
Provitamin A: Beta-carotene, a substance from plant sources (like carrots and green vegetables) that can be converted by the body into vitamin A.
You said:
Enlist any two bony deformities which characterizes this disease. (0.5) Bowing of leg Rachitic rosary Mention two nutritional forms of the vitamin, the deficiency of which causes the disease. (0.5) Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol) Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol Enumerate two preventive measures of it. (1) Sunlight exposure Vitamin D supplements Dietary calcium and vitamin D
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Enlist any two bony deformities which characterize this disease (Rickets). (0.5)
Answer:
Bowing of legs
Rachitic rosary
Q2. Mention two nutritional forms of the vitamin, the deficiency of which causes the disease. (0.5)
Answer:
Vitamin D₂ (ergocalciferol)
Vitamin D₃ (cholecalciferol)
Q3. Enumerate two preventive measures of it. (1)
Answer:
Sunlight exposure (to stimulate vitamin D synthesis)
Vitamin D supplements and dietary calcium
You said:
Identify the picture ,comment on its cause. (1) Rashes due to zinc deficiency Mention the daily requirement of this elements in adult men/ women and children/infant. (1) Recommended daily intake 12 mg/day for men & 10 mg per day for women 10 mg/day for children & 5 mg/day for infants
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Identify the picture and comment on its cause. (1)
Answer:
Condition: Rashes due to zinc deficiency
Cause: Insufficient intake or absorption of zinc, leading to skin lesions, delayed wound healing, growth retardation, and impaired immune function.
Q2. Mention the daily requirement of this element in adults, children, and infants. (1)
Answer:
Adult men: 12 mg/day
Adult women: 10 mg/day
Children: 10 mg/day
Infants: 5 mg/day
You said:
Weight of a woman is 60 kg and height is 165cm. Calculate her BMI. (1) The formula is BMI = weight in Kg/height in M2, where Kg is a person’s weight in kilograms and M2 is their height in metres square. Categorise BMI as per WHO. (1) Normal:18.5-24.9 Kg/M2 Underweight: < 18.5 Kg/M2 Overweight: 25-29.9 Kg/M2 Obese: >30 Kg/M2
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Calculate BMI of a woman with weight 60 kg and height 165 cm. (1)
Given:
Weight = 60 kg
Height = 165 cm = 1.65 m
Formula:
BMI=Height (m)2Weight (kg)BMI=1.65260=2.722560≈22.0kg/m²
Q2. Categorise BMI as per WHO. (1)
BMI = 22.0 kg/m² → Normal (18.5–24.9 kg/m²)
WHO BMI Classification:
Underweight: < 18.5 kg/m²
Normal: 18.5–24.9 kg/m²
Overweight: 25–29.9 kg/m²
Obese: ≥ 30 kg/m²
You said:
Write two milk borne bacterial diseases. (1) Infectious diarrhoea due to E. coli Food poisoning due to Staph. aureus Write the full form of SNF. (0.5) Solid-Not-Fat Enlist two common methods of pasteurization of milk. (0.5) Low temperature long time method (630C for 30 mins) High temperature short time method (720C for 15 mins) Ultra high temperature method (135-1500C for 1-4 secs)
ChatGPT said:
Q1. Write two milk-borne bacterial diseases. (1)
Answer:
Infectious diarrhoea – caused by E. coli
Food poisoning – caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Q2. Write the full form of SNF. (0.5)
Answer:
SNF: Solid-Not-Fat
Q3. Enlist two common methods of pasteurization of milk. (0.5)
Answer:
Low Temperature Long Time (LTLT) method: 63°C for 30 minutes
High Temperature Short Time (HTST) method: 72°C for 15 seconds
(Optional/Additional) Ultra High Temperature (UHT) method: 135–150°C for 1–4 seconds
You said:
How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day is required for an adult? (0.5) 5 servings (2 fruits & 3 vegetables)/ day What are the nutrients rich in green vegetables? (1) Vitamins (A,B9,C,K), Minerals (iron, calcium, magnesium, potassium), Dietary fibers & Antioxidants What are the nutrients lack in green vegetables? (0.5) Macronutrients (energy, protein, fats), Vitamins (B12,D), Minerals (zinc)
ChatGPT said:
Q1. How many servings of fruits and vegetables per day are required for an adult? (0.5)
Answer:
5 servings/day (2 fruits + 3 vegetables)
Q2. What are the nutrients rich in green vegetables? (1)
Answer:
Vitamins: A, B9 (folate), C, K
Minerals: Iron, Calcium, Magnesium, Potassium
Others: Dietary fiber and antioxidants
Q3. What are the nutrients lacking in green vegetables? (0.5)
Answer:
Macronutrients: Energy, Protein, Fats
Vitamins: B12, D
Minerals: Zinc
Semester 1
Module 5: Environment Health-I
Spotter 1
Q1. Write the name of this diagram. (0.5)
Answer:
Slow Sand Filter
Q2. Write two advantages and one disadvantage of the above method. (1.5)
Advantages:
Simple to construct and operate
Cheaper construction cost
Produces high-quality water (physical, biological, and bacteriological)
Disadvantage:
Requires a large area to set up; considered an old-fashioned/outdated method
Spotter 2
Q1. Enlist 4 points to differentiate Slow Sand Filter (SSF) and Rapid Sand Filter (RSF). (1.5)
Feature | Slow Sand Filter (SSF) | Rapid Sand Filter (RSF) |
|---|---|---|
Filtration rate | Low (~0.1–0.3 m/h) | High (~5–15 m/h) |
Mechanism | Physical, biological & bacteriological purification | Mainly physical filtration; chemical coagulants often needed |
Maintenance | Requires scraping of top layer occasionally | Frequent backwashing needed |
Area required | Large area required | Smaller area required |
Cost | Cheaper to construct | Relatively higher cost |
Q2. What is the heart of slow sand filter? (0.5)
Answer:
Sand bed – vital layer responsible for biological and physical purification
Spotter 3
Q1. Enlist the methods of small-scale water purification. (1)
Answer:
Boiling
Chlorination (chlorine tablets)
Chemical disinfection (iodine tablets)
Filtration
Ultraviolet (UV) irradiation
Multi-stage reverse osmosis purification
Q2. Enlist the methods of large-scale water purification. (1)
Answer:
Sedimentation / Coagulation-Flocculation
Filtration – slow sand filter or rapid sand filter
Disinfection – chlorination, ozonation, or UV treatment
Softening (if required)
Fluoridation (optional)
Spotter 4
Q1. Identify the specimen. (0.5)
Answer:
Chlorination
Q2. Write the phases of chlorination. (1)
Answer:
Adding chlorine to water – initial addition of chlorine
Break point chlorination – point at which chlorine demand is satisfied and free chlorine begins to appear
Superchlorination – addition of chlorine beyond the breakpoint to ensure disinfection
Orthotolidine test – used to detect residual chlorine in water
Q3. How is chlorine demand estimated? (0.5)
Answer:
Chlorine demand is the difference between the amount of chlorine added to water and the residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specified contact period, under a given temperature and pH.
Spotter 5
Q1. Identify the specimen. (0.5)
Answer:
Chlorination
Q2. How many grams of bleaching powder is required to disinfect 1500 liters of water, where the 4th cup is the 1st cup to show color change? (1.5)
Answer:
2 grams of bleaching powder are required.
Explanation:
The orthotolidine test determines the first cup to show color change, which indicates the amount of chlorine needed to satisfy chlorine demand and achieve safe disinfection.
Based on the test, for 1500 liters of water, 2 g of bleaching powder is sufficient.
Spotter 6
Q1. Identify the figure. (0.5)
Answer:
Modern Sewage Treatment Plant
Q2. Write the components of primary treatment of sewage. (1)
Answer:
Screening – removal of large debris
Grit chamber – settling of sand and grit
Primary sedimentation – settling of suspended solids
Skimming / Scum removal – removal of floating materials
Q3. What is dry weather flow? (0.5)
Answer:
Dry weather flow is the flow of sewage in sewers during dry weather conditions (i.e., without rain or stormwater).
Spotter 7
Q1. Identify the figure. (0.5)
Answer:
Activated Sludge Process
Q2. Write the components of primary and secondary treatment of sewage. (1)
Primary Treatment:
Screening
Grit chamber
Primary sedimentation
Skimming / Scum removal
Secondary Treatment:
Activated sludge process
Biofilters / Trickling filters
Rotating biological contactors
Secondary clarifiers
Q3. What is zoogleal layer? (0.5)
Answer:
Zoogleal layer is a biological slime layer of microorganisms that develops on the surface of a slow sand filter during water purification. It is also called Schmutzdecke and is crucial for biological purification.
Spotter 8
#Instrument 1
Q1. Name of the instrument: (0.5)
Stevenson Screen / Thermometer Screen
Q2. Uses: (1.5)
Acts as a storehouse for thermometers, hygrometers, and barometers
White color reflects heat; slatted sides and double roof ensure air circulation and reduce solar heat absorption
Provides a standard environment for accurate measurement of temperature, humidity, dew point, and atmospheric pressure
#Instrument 2
Q1. Name of the instrument: (0.5)
Kata Thermometer
Q2. Uses: (1.5)
Ventilation & HVAC: assess air circulation
Industrial Safety (Mining): evaluate airflow in mines
Meteorology: measure low wind speeds and air currents, complementing anemometers
Occupational Health: gauge thermal comfort and heat stress in workplaces
Radiant Heat: estimate radiant heat effects
#Instrument 3
Q1. Name of the instrument: (0.5)
Globe Thermometer
Q2. Uses: (1.5)
Heat Stress Assessment: indicates heat risk in outdoor work, sports, and military operations
Thermal Comfort: measures combined effect of radiation and convection on people
Building Design: evaluates solar heat gain and loss
Environmental Monitoring: measures Mean Radiant Temperature (MRT) to understand thermal environments, from urban heat islands to industrial settings
#Instrument 4
Q1. Name of the instrument: (0.5)
Anemometer
Q2. Uses: (1.5)
Meteorology & Climatology: used in weather stations for predicting storms, understanding climate patterns, and tracking atmospheric conditions
Aviation: pilots use it for safe takeoffs, landings, and flight planning
Renewable Energy: measures wind resources to optimize wind turbine placement and operation
Aerospace: used in wind tunnels to test vehicle aerodynamics (cars, planes, spacecraft) for better design
Spotter 9
Q1. Which type of ventilation is shown in the picture? (0.5)
Answer:
Mechanical Ventilation
Q2. List types of ventilation. (1)
Answer:
Natural ventilation
Mechanical ventilation
Mixed / Hybrid ventilation
Q3. Mention any two effects of inadequate ventilation. (0.5)
Answer:
Accumulation of airborne pathogens
Accumulation of carbon dioxide (CO₂)
Spotter 10
Q1. Mention at least two daylight factors in these areas: (1)
Living Room:
Adequate daylight factor for general activities
Proper distribution of sunlight to avoid glare
Kitchen:
Sufficient direct sunlight for cooking and cleaning tasks
Even illumination to reduce shadows on work surfaces
Q2. Mention the biological effects of daylight. (1)
Answer:
Vitamin D synthesis in the skin
Reduces eye strain
Boosts mood and reduces stress
Helps in natural disinfection of living spaces
Spotter 11
Q1. Write the name of the given spotter. (0.5)
Answer:
Siphon Flush Toilet
Q2. Mention the importance of this item. (1.5)
Answer:
Efficient removal of waste with minimal water usage
Maintains hygiene and odor-free environment due to water seal
Simple and reliable for household use
Spotter 12
Q1. Write the name of the given instrument. (0.5)
Answer:
Incinerator
Q2. What is the ideal temperature for processing by this method? (0.5)
Answer:
800–1200 °C
Q3. Enlist 2 drawbacks of this method. (1)
Answer:
Requires high energy/fuel
Produces air pollutants if not properly controlled
Costly equipment and maintenance
Spotter 13
Q1. Write the name of the given instrument. (0.5)
Answer:
Incinerator
Q2. What is the ideal temperature for processing by this method? (0.5)
Answer:
800–1200 °C
Q3. Enlist 2 uses of it. (1)
Answer:
Medical waste disposal – used bandages, syringes, anatomical waste
Municipal solid waste management
Hazardous or chemical waste disposal
Spotter 14
Q1. List 3R’s of Health Care Waste Management. (0.5)
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
Q2. What is the amount of estimated health care waste generated in Nepal (kg/person/day)? (0.5)
Answer:
1 to 1.7 kg/bed/day
Q3. Mention latest and best technique of waste management for new hospital settings. (1)
Answer:
Autoclaving
Spotter 15
Q1. Enlist the type of waste that is stored in this bin/bag as per latest guidelines for segregation of bio-medical waste. (1)
Answer:
Infected waste: contaminated dressings, bandages, swabs
Pathological and anatomical waste: body parts, tissues, organs
Q2. What is the full form of 3R’s in healthcare waste management? (1)
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
##########Q1. Colour of the bin for the above types of biomedical waste:
Infected waste & pathological/anatomical waste: Red bin / Red bag
Note:
Red bin/bag is used for contaminated, infectious, and sharable non-sharp waste that requires autoclaving, microwaving, or chemical disinfection before final disposal.
Yellow bin/bag is generally for anatomical/pathological waste for incineration in some updated guidelines, so always check local regulations.
####################################
Bin/Bag Colour | Type of Waste Stored | Examples |
|---|---|---|
Green | Non‑risk waste (biodegradable) | Food leftovers, garden waste, fruit peels, flowers, etc. (WASH in Health Care Facilities) |
Blue / Dark Blue | Non‑risk waste (non‑biodegradable / recyclable) | Plastic bottles, metals, glass, papers, etc. (WASH in Health Care Facilities) |
Red | Risk/ infectious and pathological waste | Contaminated dressings/bandages, soiled materials, body parts, organs, sharps after disinfection (context varies) (WASH in Health Care Facilities) |
White (Translucent) | Sharps waste (puncture‑proof) | Needles, scalpels, broken glass, blades, etc. (WASH in Health Care Facilities) |
Spotter 16
Q1. How many colours of bin are available for waste disposal? (1)
Answer:
4
Q2. Enlist the type of waste that goes in this bin. (1)
Answer:
Infected waste: contaminated dressings, bandages
Pathological and anatomical waste: body parts, tissues, organs
Spotter 17
Q1. Which type of waste is shown in this picture? (0.5)
Answer:
Infected / Contaminated waste (e.g., blood‑soaked gauze)
Q2. In which bin will you throw it? (0.5)
Answer:
Red bin / Red bag
Q3. Write treatment of this type of waste. (1)
Answer:
Disinfection methods: Autoclaving, microwaving, or chemical disinfection
Final disposal: After treatment, can be sent for incineration or secure landfill according to biomedical waste management guidelines
Spotter 18
Q1. Mention methods for management of Health Care Waste according to guidelines of Nepal 2071. (1)
Answer:
Waste minimization – reduce the amount of waste generated
Waste segregation – separate waste at the point of generation by type and hazard
Waste collection and storage – use appropriate bins and store safely
Waste transportation – move waste safely to treatment or disposal areas
Waste treatment and disposal – disinfect, recycle, or safely dispose according to type
Q2. Enlist the type of waste that goes in red bin. (1)
Answer:
Contaminated but sharpless recyclable wastes: IV tubes & sets, catheters, gloves, syringes, contaminated plastics
Note:
Red bin is primarily for infectious or pathological waste requiring disinfection before final disposal.
Spotter 19
Q1. Identify this picture. (0.5)
Answer:
Incinerator
Q2. Mention the type of wastes that are treated by this instrument. (1.5)
Answer:
Human anatomical waste
Animal waste
Soiled waste
Expired/discarded medicines
Sharps
Q3. Write treatment method of infected waste. (0.5)
Answer:
Autoclaving, incineration, chemical disinfection, or burial
Spotter 20
Q1. Identify this picture. (0.5)
Answer:
Inertization
Q2. Which type of waste is treated by this instrument? (1)
Answer:
Chemical wastes: acids, alkalis, and toxic chemicals
Pharmaceutical waste: hazardous but non-infectious
Radioactive or heavy metals
Sharps after disinfection
Q3. Comment on the mixing of this type of waste with others before treatment. (1)
Answer:
Typical inertization mixture:
65% pharmaceutical waste
15% lime
15% cement
5% water
This mixture stabilizes and neutralizes the waste before safe disposal
MODULE:6
BIOSTATISTICS - I
Spotter 1
Construct pie chart from the following data. (2) Male=40 Female=50 Transgender=10
Given data:
Male = 40
Female = 50
Transgender = 10
Step 1: Find total population
Total=40+50+10=100\text{Total} = 40 + 50 + 10 = 100Total=40+50+10=100
Step 2: Calculate percentage for each category
Male: 40100×100=40%\frac{40}{100} \times 100 = 40\%10040×100=40%
Female: 50100×100=50%\frac{50}{100} \times 100 = 50\%10050×100=50%
Transgender: 10100×100=10%\frac{10}{100} \times 100 = 10\%10010×100=10%
Step 3: Convert percentage to degrees for pie chart
Angle=Percentage×360/100\text{Angle} = \text{Percentage} \times 360 / 100Angle=Percentage×360/100
Male: 40×360/100=144∘40 \times 360 / 100 = 144^\circ40×360/100=144∘
Female: 50×360/100=180∘50 \times 360 / 100 = 180^\circ50×360/100=180∘
Transgender: 10×360/100=36∘10 \times 360 / 100 = 36^\circ10×360/100=36∘
Step 4: Draw the pie chart
Draw a circle.
Use a protractor to mark the angles from the center:
Male: 144°
Female: 180°
Transgender: 36°
Shade each section differently and label them.
Spotter 2
Q1. Write down the formula to calculate Mean and Standard Deviation. (1)
Mean (𝑥̄):
xˉ=∑xin\bar{x} = \frac{\sum x_i}{n} xˉ=n∑xi
Where xix_ixi = each observation, nnn = number of observations
Standard Deviation (SD, s):
s=∑(xi−xˉ)2n−1s = \sqrt{\frac{\sum (x_i - \bar{x})^2}{n-1}} s=n−1∑(xi−xˉ)2
Where xix_ixi = each observation, xˉ\bar{x}xˉ = mean, nnn = number of observations
Q2. Calculate Mean from the given values (1):
Values: 10, 16, 14, 22, 19
Step 1: Sum of values
10+16+14+22+19=8110 + 16 + 14 + 22 + 19 = 8110+16+14+22+19=81
Step 2: Number of observations
n=5n = 5n=5
Step 3: Mean
xˉ=815=16.2\bar{x} = \frac{81}{5} = 16.2xˉ=581=16.2
Answer:
Mean = 16.2
Spotter 3
Q1. Identify the spotter. (0.5)
Answer:
Normal distribution curve
Q2. Mention the formulae to calculate mean, median, and standard deviation. (1.5)
Mean (𝑥̄):
xˉ=∑xin\bar{x} = \frac{\sum x_i}{n} xˉ=n∑xi
Where xix_ixi = each observation, nnn = number of observations
Median (for odd n):
Median=Middle value when data is arranged in ascending order\text{Median} = \text{Middle value when data is arranged in ascending order} Median=Middle value when data is arranged in ascending order
Median (for even n):
Median=Middle value 1 + Middle value 22\text{Median} = \frac{\text{Middle value 1 + Middle value 2}}{2} Median=2Middle value 1 + Middle value 2
Standard Deviation (SD, s):
s=∑(xi−xˉ)2n−1s = \sqrt{\frac{\sum (x_i - \bar{x})^2}{n-1}} s=n−1∑(xi−xˉ)2
Where xix_ixi = each observation, xˉ\bar{x}xˉ = mean, nnn = number of observations
Spotter 4
Q1. Write the name of the given diagram. (1)
Answer:
Pie Chart
Q2. Mention its application. (1)
Answer:
Representation of categorical data as proportions or percentages of a whole
Useful for visualizing distribution of variables such as gender, age groups, occupation, or any other part-to-whole relationship
Commonly used in epidemiology, public health, surveys, and statistics to present data clearly and quickly
Spotter 5
Q1. Write the name of the given diagram. (1)
Answer:
Histogram
Q2. Mention its application. (1)
Answer:
Representation of continuous data using frequency distribution
Useful to visualize the shape of data, such as normal distribution, skewness, or variability
Commonly used in epidemiology, statistics, and research to show how often values occur within intervals
