#Practice Set V: MBBS II – Community Medicine

(Tick the single best answer)
30 Questions × 1 Mark = 30 Marks

1. A screening test with high sensitivity is most useful for:
A. Confirming diagnosis
B. Ruling out disease when test is negative
C. Increasing specificity
D. Estimating prevalence
Key: B

2. If incidence remains constant but prevalence increases, the most likely explanation is:
A. Increased recovery rate
B. Increased duration of disease
C. Reduced case detection
D. Increased mortality
Key: B

3. In a cohort study, the appropriate measure of association is:
A. Odds ratio
B. Relative risk
C. Prevalence ratio
D. Attributable proportion
Key: B

4. The best indicator of severity of an acute infectious disease is:
A. Attack rate
B. Incidence rate
C. Case fatality rate
D. Secondary attack rate
Key: C

5. The epidemiological concept that explains clustering of disease due to interaction of multiple factors is:
A. Germ theory
B. Web of causation
C. Epidemiological triad
D. Natural history of disease
Key: B

6. Confounding is best controlled at the design stage by:
A. Stratification
B. Matching
C. Standardization
D. Regression
Key: B

7. A test that identifies correctly those without disease is measuring:
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Predictive value
D. Reliability
Key: B

8. Which level of prevention targets risk factor emergence itself?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primordial prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Key: C

9. The most appropriate study design to investigate an outbreak of food poisoning in a wedding party is:
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Retrospective cohort study
C. Case-control study
D. Ecological study
Key: B

10. The denominator of maternal mortality ratio is:
A. Total births
B. Total women
C. Live births
D. Pregnant women
Key: C

11. The best index for assessing protein quality is:
A. Digestibility coefficient
B. Net protein utilization
C. Calorie content
D. Amino acid score
Key: B

12. Standardization of rates is primarily done to control for differences in:
A. Exposure
B. Age distribution
C. Sample size
D. Measurement error
Key: B

13. Secondary attack rate is useful in studying:
A. Vector-borne diseases
B. Familial transmission
C. Occupational diseases
D. Chronic diseases
Key: B

14. The most appropriate indicator for evaluating success of immunization program is:
A. Incidence rate
B. Prevalence rate
C. Case fatality rate
D. Proportional mortality rate
Key: A

15. A false positive result increases when:
A. Sensitivity increases
B. Specificity decreases
C. Prevalence increases
D. Incidence decreases
Key: B

16. The phase of demographic transition characterized by rapid population growth is:
A. High stationary
B. Early expanding
C. Late expanding
D. Low stationary
Key: B

17. Which measure reflects risk difference due to exposure?
A. Relative risk
B. Odds ratio
C. Attributable risk
D. Standardized mortality ratio
Key: C

18. The most appropriate index for comparing mortality between populations with different age structures is:
A. Crude death rate
B. Case fatality rate
C. Age-specific death rate
D. Standardized death rate
Key: D

19. The incubation period of a disease primarily depends on:
A. Age of host
B. Infective dose and host resistance
C. Mode of transmission
D. Treatment received
Key: B

20. Reliability of a test refers to:
A. Validity
B. Reproducibility
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
Key: B

21. The most appropriate method for health education to develop skills is:
A. Lecture
B. Demonstration
C. Mass media
D. Symposium
Key: B

22. Biological oxygen demand indicates:
A. Chemical contamination
B. Organic pollution of water
C. Mineral content
D. Water hardness
Key: B

23. The goal directly related to health among SDGs is:
A. Goal 1
B. Goal 2
C. Goal 3
D. Goal 5
Key: C
(Launched under the framework supported by World Health Organization)

24. The best study design to test vaccine efficacy is:
A. Case-control study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Ecological study
Key: C

25. The most sensitive indicator of community health status is:
A. Crude birth rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Literacy rate
D. Dependency ratio
Key: B

26. An association observed due to bias or chance is called:
A. Causal association
B. Indirect association
C. Spurious association
D. Attributable association
Key: C

27. The major determinant of prevalence in chronic diseases is:
A. Incubation period
B. Duration of illness
C. Mode of transmission
D. Attack rate
Key: B

28. In screening programs, lead time bias results in:
A. False high incidence
B. Apparent increase in survival
C. Reduced specificity
D. Reduced sensitivity
Key: B

29. The epidemiological triad does NOT include:
A. Agent
B. Host
C. Environment
D. Vector
Key: D

30. The level of prevention aimed at limiting disability is:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention
Key: C